UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 {Download PDF}

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 PDF Download: GS Paper 1 & CSAT, Exam Analysis, Answer Key

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 is one of the most searched resources for aspirants appearing in the Civil Services Examination and for candidates preparing for UPSC CSE 2027. The UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 is being held on 24 May 2026, and the question paper will consist of two objective papers: General Studies Paper 1 and General Studies Paper 2, commonly known as CSAT.

This article provides the UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 PDF download links, GS Paper 1 subject-wise analysis, difficulty level, paper trend, answer key status, CSAT details and the correct way to use the paper for future preparation.

Latest Update: UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 Out, Download GS Paper 1 and CSAT PDF

Download GS Paper 1 {pdf} Download CSAT Paper {pdf}

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026: Quick Overview

Particular	Details
Exam Name	Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026
Conducting Body	Union Public Service Commission
Exam Date	24 May 2026
Mode of Exam	Offline, pen-and-paper based
Papers	GS Paper 1 and GS Paper 2 / CSAT
Type of Questions	Objective type / multiple-choice questions
Total Marks	400 marks
Duration	2 hours for each paper
GS Paper 1	200 marks, merit-deciding for Prelims qualification
CSAT / Paper 2	200 marks, qualifying in nature
CSAT Qualifying Marks	33%
Negative Marking	One-third of the marks assigned to the question
Official Website	upsc.gov.in

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 PDF Download (All Sets A, B, C, D)

Candidates can download the UPSC Prelims 2026 question paper PDFs from the table below:

Paper	PDF Download Link	Status
UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 Question Paper PDF	Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1	Available for analysis
UPSC Prelims 2026 CSAT Question Paper PDF	Prelims 2026 CSAT	Available for analysis
UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 Answer Key	GS Paper 1 Answer Key	Available for analysis
UPSC Prelims 2026 CSAT Answer Key	CSAT Answer Key	Available for analysis

Prelims 2026: GS Paper 1 (All Sets)	UPSC Question Paper PDF
GS Paper 1 Question Paper 2026– Set A	Download PDF
GS Paper 1 Question Paper 2026 – Set B	Download PDF
GS Paper 1 Question Paper 2026 – Set C	Download PDF
GS Paper 1 Question Paper 2026 – Set D	Download PDF

Prelims 2026: CSAT Paper (All Sets)	UPSC Question Paper PDF
UPSC CSAT Question Paper 2026 – Set A	Download PDF
UPSC CSAT Question Paper 2026 – Set B	Download PDF
UPSC CSAT Question Paper 2026 – Set C	Download PDF
UPSC CSAT Question Paper 2026 – Set D	Download PDF

Important: UPSC usually publishes official previous question papers on its official website. Aspirants should also check the official UPSC previous question paper page for authentic PDFs: UPSC Previous Question Papers.

UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 Question Paper

UPSC GS Paper 1 is the decisive paper in the Preliminary Examination. The marks obtained in this paper are used for shortlisting candidates for the Civil Services Main Examination, provided the candidate qualifies CSAT.

GS Paper 1 Key Details

Feature	Details
Paper	General Studies Paper 1
Marks	200
Duration	2 hours
Nature	Merit-deciding for Prelims
Question Type	Objective / MCQ
Negative Marking	Yes

Areas Covered in UPSC GS Paper 1

The UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 tested conceptual clarity, current affairs awareness, factual precision and statement elimination. The paper covered:

• Current events of national and international importance
• History of India and Indian National Movement
• Indian and World Geography
• Indian Polity and Governance
• Economic and Social Development
• Environment, biodiversity and climate change
• General Science

In the 2026 paper, UPSC gave visible weightage to History-Art & Culture, Environment-Geography, Economy, Science & Technology, Polity-Governance and International Relations. Several questions were based on recent schemes, institutions, missions, certifications, technology applications and international developments.

UPSC Prelims 2026 CSAT Question Paper

CSAT is officially General Studies Paper 2. It is qualifying in nature, but it is not optional. Candidates must appear in both papers. A candidate who does not appear in both papers is not evaluated for the Prelims qualification.

CSAT Paper Key Details

Feature	Details
Paper	General Studies Paper 2 / CSAT
Marks	200
Duration	2 hours
Nature	Qualifying
Minimum Qualifying Marks	33%
Question Type	Objective / MCQ
Negative Marking	Yes

CSAT Areas Covered

The CSAT paper generally includes:

• Reading comprehension
• Interpersonal and communication skills
• Logical reasoning and analytical ability
• Decision-making and problem-solving
• General mental ability
• Basic numeracy
• Data interpretation

UPSC Prelims 2026 Exam Pattern

Paper	Subject	Marks	Duration	Nature
Paper 1	General Studies	200	2 hours	Merit-deciding
Paper 2	CSAT / General Studies Paper 2	200	2 hours	Qualifying, 33%
Total		400	4 hours	Screening stage

The Preliminary Examination is only a screening test. Marks obtained in Prelims are not counted for the final merit list. Final ranking in UPSC CSE is based on the Main Examination written marks and the Personality Test.

UPSC Prelims 2026 Negative Marking

UPSC applies negative marking in objective papers. For every wrong answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question is deducted. If a candidate marks more than one option, the answer is treated as wrong. If a question is left blank, no penalty is applied.

For aspirants using the UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 for practice, this is important. Do not calculate only gross marks. Calculate your net score after negative marking.

UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 Analysis

The UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 was Moderate to Difficult. It was not a purely static or purely current-affairs paper. The paper combined static knowledge with recent developments and tested whether candidates could eliminate closely framed statements.

The most striking feature of the paper was its wide factual range. UPSC asked questions from ancient texts, Buddhist and Jain traditions, classical music, temple architecture, river systems, current environmental initiatives, fintech, blockchain, CBDC, rare earth elements, LLMs, space technology, governance ethics, disability rights, parliamentary committees, international organisations and defence issues.

UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 Subject-Wise Distribution

Subject Area	Approx. Questions	Difficulty Level	Nature of Questions
History, Art & Culture	20	Difficult	Ancient history, culture, archaeology, modern history and niche factual areas
Geography + Environment	20	Moderate-Difficult	Physical geography, species, protected areas, climate, current environment
Economy + Agriculture	18	Moderate	Financial concepts, fintech, schemes, infrastructure, MSME, agriculture
Science & Technology	14	Moderate	AI, blockchain, space, biotechnology, quantum, defence technology
Polity + Governance + Social Justice	15	Moderate-Difficult	Constitution, Parliament, disability rights, governance caselets, law
International Relations + Security + Defence	13	Difficult	International organisations, India-neighbourhood, defence, conventions

UPSC Prelims 2026 Difficulty Level

The overall difficulty level of UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 was Moderate to Difficult.

UPSC Prelims 2026 Answer Key

The UPSC Prelims 2026 answer key should be treated carefully. Coaching answer keys released immediately after the exam may differ from the official answer key. Candidates should use early answer keys only for approximate score calculation.

How to Calculate UPSC Prelims Score

1. Count the number of correct answers.
2. Count the number of wrong answers.
3. Apply one-third negative marking.
4. Do not deduct marks for unattempted questions.
5. For GS Paper 1, calculate the net score.
6. For CSAT, check whether the score crosses 33%.

How to Use UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 for Preparation

The 2026 question paper will be valuable not only for candidates who appeared this year but also for UPSC 2027 and 2028 aspirants. Use it in the following manner:

1. Solve It Like a Real Exam

Do not read the answer key first. Sit with a timer and solve GS Paper 1 in two hours. Then solve CSAT in two hours. This will give you an honest estimate of your exam temperament.

2. Classify Every Question

After solving, classify each question into:

• Direct factual question
• Conceptual question
• Current affairs linked question
• Elimination-based question
• Tricky or ambiguous question

This will help you understand the actual demand of UPSC Prelims.

3. Identify Repeated Themes

UPSC rarely repeats questions mechanically, but it repeatedly tests themes. For example, constitutional bodies, environment conventions, maps, agriculture, fiscal policy, Buddhism-Jainism, and science applications have remained important across years.

4. Analyse Options, Not Just Questions

UPSC Prelims is increasingly an option-analysis examination. Even when candidates do not know the exact answer, they can reach the correct option through elimination, conceptual clarity and awareness of extreme statements.

5. Make a Mistake Register

Every wrong answer should be converted into a note. Mention why you marked it wrong:

• lack of knowledge
• poor elimination
• overthinking
• factual confusion
• misreading the question
• time pressure

This exercise is more valuable than simply reading a solution PDF.

Why UPSC Prelims 2026 Question Paper Is Important

The UPSC Prelims 2026 question paper will reveal:

• the changing weightage of static and current affairs
• the level of conceptual depth expected by UPSC
• the role of elimination techniques
• the relevance of NCERTs, standard books and newspapers
• the type of CSAT preparation required
• the gap between mock test preparation and actual UPSC demand

For future aspirants, this paper should become part of the core PYQ book, not a one-day download.

Common Mistakes While Checking UPSC Prelims 2026 Answer Key

• Depending on only one unofficial answer key
• Ignoring negative marking
• Treating disputed questions as final
• Overestimating score by counting doubtful questions as correct
• Forgetting that CSAT is qualifying but compulsory
• Comparing raw attempts with other candidates without checking accuracy

What to Do After UPSC Prelims 2026

Candidates should not wait for the official result to begin Mains preparation. If your GS Paper 1 score is near or above the expected safe zone and CSAT is comfortably qualified, start answer writing immediately.

Post-Prelims Action Plan

Candidate Situation	Suggested Action
Clearly above expected cutoff	Start Mains preparation immediately
Borderline score	Begin Mains preparation while tracking reliable answer keys
Low GS score but CSAT qualified	Analyse mistakes and restart foundation + PYQ work
GS decent but CSAT doubtful	Recalculate carefully and prepare CSAT seriously for next attempt

The UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026 is not just a PDF to download. It is a diagnostic document that shows the real direction of UPSC preparation. Aspirants should use the GS Paper 1 and CSAT papers to understand topic weightage, question framing, elimination logic, and the level of conceptual clarity required for the Civil Services Examination.

Bookmark this page for the UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 PDF, CSAT PDF, answer key updates, difficulty analysis and subject-wise question distribution.

UPSC Prelims Questions 2026

Question 1

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi

(b) Kamavardhini

(c) Hanumatodi

(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Question 2

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

(b) Providing support to Indian importers

(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India

(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Question 3

Consider the following statements: I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Emergence of urban life
2. Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 4

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 3 and 4

Question 5

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a) Deva (gods)

(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

(c) Manushya (humans)

(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Question 6

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a) A joyous folk dance

(b) Buddha in a meditative pose

(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha

(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Question 7

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 8

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns: I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 9

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Question 10

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra /sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Question 11

Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3

Question 12

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha

(b) The Buddha’s First Sermon

(c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana

(d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Question 13

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni : Jhelum
3. Parushni : Ravi
4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 3 only

(d) 4 only

Question 14

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 15

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera
2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 16

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4 only

Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Question 18

Consider the following assertion : The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 19

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana

(b) Gwalior Gharana

(c) Patiala Gharana

(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Question 20

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

(a) Rigveda

(b) Atharvaveda

(c) Ashtadhyayi

(d) Arthashastra

Question 21

Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change: I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 22

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 23

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 24

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 25

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
2. It flows through three countries.
3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

(a) Brahmaputra

(b) Indus

(c) Sutlej

(d) Teesta

Question 26

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 27

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 28

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 29

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 30

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1. Bahrain
2. Syria
3. Qatar
4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Question 31

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador

(b) Peru

(c) Bolivia

(d) Colombia

Question 32

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 33

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 34

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 35

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 36

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Question 37

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1. They acted as army fortresses.
2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 4

Question 38

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient “Blue Transformation”.

Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Question 39

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 40

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project

(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

(c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Question 41

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 42

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 43

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 44

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 45

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 46

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACE) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 47

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 48

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 49

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.
2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 50

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 51

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

(a) Esprit de corps

(b) Equity

(c) Accountability

(d) Delegation

Question 52

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform- including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives – to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 53

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 54

X was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. X explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which X was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) X is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.

(b) The view of Y that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.

(c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.

(d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Question 55

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Question 56

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 only

Question 57

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Question 58

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Question 59

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Question 60

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Question 61

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

1. ‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 3 only

Question 62

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

Question 63

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) None

Question 64

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention
2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Question 65

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

1. The Summit’s intellectual framework was structured around three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.
2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses the Charter for Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation ecosystems and strengthen resilient AI while respecting national laws.
3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Question 66

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2. IMT Trilateral Highway
3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

Question 67

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Country)	List II (Project Supported by India)
A. Maldives	1. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project
B. Afghanistan	2. Restoration of Stor Palace
C. Bhutan	3. District Hospital at Dickoya
D. Sri Lanka	4. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies

Code:

(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Question 68

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

Question 69

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

1. The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
2. The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
3. The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Question 70

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children’s Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Question 71

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)	List II (Period of Operation)
A. UNMIL	1. 2007-2010
B. MINURCAT	2. 2002-2005
C. MINUSTAH	3. 2003-2018
D. UNMISET	4. 2004-2017

Code:

(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Question 72

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)	List II (Location)
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory	1. NOIDA
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre	2. Bengaluru
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate	3. Colombo
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility	4. Thimphu

Code:

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Question 73

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Indian Army Corps	Headquarters
(a) 3 Corps	Dimapur
(b) 4 Corps	Tezpur
(c) 14 Corps	Leh
(d) 33 Corps	Srinagar

Question 74

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Question 75

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus
2. Poland
3. Germany
4. Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Question 76

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (INTERPOL Notice)	List II (Description)
A. Silver Notice	1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
B. Blue Notice	2. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
C. Black Notice	3. To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is to be considered a possible threat to public safety
D. Green Notice	4. To identify and trace criminal assets

Code:

(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Question 77

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Question 78

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1. Signing of Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
2. Signing of Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 only

Question 79

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
2. It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 80

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS 19445: 2025.
2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Question 81

X”, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’:

(a) Michel H. Devoret

(b) Richard Robson

(c) John Clarke

(d) Joel Mokyr

Question 82

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 83

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat

(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

(c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Question 84

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
3. There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 85

Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’:

1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Question 86

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4 only

Question 87

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(a) Dropshipping Model

(b) Affiliate Revenue Model

(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model

(d) Agency Revenue Model

Question 88

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage

(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy

(c) Access, Usage, and Quality

(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Question 89

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative ?

(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions

(b) To replace private e-commerce players

(c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Question 90

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.

(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.

(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Question 91

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Question 92

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

(a) Green Bond

(b) Social Bond

(c) Sustainability Bond

(d) Sovereign Bond

Question 93

Which of the following statements about M1xchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Question 94

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending

(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

(c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private investment

(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Question 95

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Question 96

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. ‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the below code :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 97

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 98

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Committee	Objective	Organization under which it was formed
1.	R.N. Malhotra Committee	Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India	Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2.	L.C. Gupta Committee	Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India	Securities and Exchange Board of India
3.	Urjit R. Patel Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector	Reserve Bank of India
4.	Y.H. Malegam Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India	Reserve Bank of India

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Question 99

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Question 100

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only