Q. How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Answer: (d) Four

Delimitation:
  • Delimitation means the process of fixing the number of seats and boundaries of territorial constituencies in each State for the Lok Sabha and Legislative assemblies.
    • It also includes determining the seats to be reserved for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in these houses.
  • This ‘delimitation process’ is performed by the ‘Delimitation Commission’ that is set up under an act of Parliament.
    • Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States respectively, after every census.
    • Accordingly, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Commission Act and an independent high-powered panel known as the Delimitation Commission is constituted to carry out the exercise of delimitation.
    • Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times — 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
      • There was no Delimitation Commission Act after the 1981 and 1991 census.
      • The first delimitation exercise was carried out by the President (with the help of the Election Commission) in 1950-51.
      • The next Delimitation Commission will be set up after 2026.
Delimitation Commission
  • The Delimitation Commission is a high-powered committee entrusted with the task of drawing and redrawing of boundaries of different constituencies for state assembly and Lok Sabha election.
  • It is appointed by the President and works in collaboration with the Election Commission.
  • The Commission consists of – 
    • A retired or working Supreme Court Judge (chairperson)
    • Election Commissioner
    • Concerned State Election Commissioners
  • The Commission’s orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
  • The Commission’s orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the legislative assemblies concerned, but they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
1952First delimitation exercise post-independence.1951 census
1963First delimitation exercise after the reorganisation of states in 1956. Only single-seat constituencies1961 census
1973Increase in Lok Sabha seats from 522 to 5431971 census
2002No changes in Lok Sabha seats or their apportionment between the various states2001 census
2026Following the 84th amendment to the Constitution, in 2002, Delimitation is to be done after 2026, based on the first census conducted after 2026.
Delimitation in Northeast States (NES)
  • As per Section 8A of RPA 1950, President can order delimitation exercise to be carried out
    in Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur and Nagaland.
    • Delimitation exercise has not been carried out for last 51 years in these states.
    • Last delimitation exercise (2002-08) kept out these NES due to apprehensions over use of 2001 Census.
    • Also, Presidential Order of 2020, which allowed for conducting delimitation exercises in these 4 states as well, was restricted to Jammu and Kashmir only.

Q. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eights Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

  1. Konkani
  2. Manipuri
  3. Nepali
  4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Notes:
  • The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution originally included 14 languages.
  • Sindhi was included by the 21st Amendment, enacted in 1967.
  • The Seventy-first Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Seventy-first Amendment) Act, 1992, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Konkani, Meitei (officially called “Manipuri”) and Nepali languages, thereby raising the total number of languages listed in the schedule to eighteen.
  • Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithili were included in the Eighth Schedule in 2004, through the 92nd Amendment, raising the total number of languages to 22.

Q. Which of the following statements are correct about the constitution of India?

  1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
  2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
  3. Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Read: All 25 Parts of Indian Constitution

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

Notes:
  • The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India under Article 246 specifies the allocation of powers and functions between the Union and the State legislatures.
  • Presently, the Union List contains 97 subjects, the State List contains 61 subjects, and the Concurrent List contains 47 subjects.
  • Union List:
    • Entry 42: Inter-State trade and commerce.
    • Entry 81: Inter-state migration; inter-State quarantine.
    • Entry 85: Corporation tax.

Read: 7th Schedule of Indian Constitution

Q. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 21

Answer: (d) Article 21

Right to Privacy
  • Generally understood that privacy is synonymous with the right to be let alone.
  • The Supreme Court described privacy and its importance in the landmark decision of K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India in 2017 that – Right to Privacy is a fundamental and inalienable right and attaches to the person covering all information about that person and the choices that he/ she makes.
  • The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
  • Restrictions (as stated in the Judgement):
    • The right may be restricted only by state action that passes each of the three tests:
      • First, such state action must have a legislative mandate,
      • Second, it must be pursuing a legitimate state purpose, and
      • Third, it must be proportionate i.e., such state action- both in its nature and extent, must be necessary in a democratic society and the action ought to be the least intrusive of the available alternatives to accomplish the ends.

Q. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

  1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
  2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
  3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only

Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
  • The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is the principal military authority and senior-most appointment of the Indian Armed Forces.
  • The duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include the following:
    • To head the Department of Military Affairs in Ministry of Defence and function as its Secretary.
    • To act as the Principal Military Advisor to Hon’ble Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters.
    • To function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee
    • To administer the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/commands.
    • To be a member of Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Hon’ble Raksha Mantri.
    • To function as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority.
    • To bring about jointness in operation, logistics, transport, training, support services, communications, repairs and maintenance, etc of the three Services.
    • To ensure optimal utilisation of infrastructure and rationalise it through jointness among the Services.
    • To implement Five-Year Defence Capital Acquisition Plan and Two-Year roll-on Annual Acquisition Plans, as a follow up of Integrated Capability Development Plan.
    • To assign inter-services prioritisation to capital acquisition proposals based on the anticipated budget.
    • To bring about reforms in the functioning of three Services with the aim to augment combat capabilities of the Armed Forces by reducing wasteful expenditure.
  • The mandate of the Department of Military Affairs inter-alia includes “Facilitation of restructuring of Military Commands for optimal utilisation of resources by bringing about jointness in operations, including through establishment of joint/theatre commands”.
  • The CDS does not exercise military command over the three services.

Q. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

  1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
  2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
  3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Ethics Committee:
  • Objective: It oversees the moral and ethical conduct of members and examines cases of misconduct referred to it.
  • History:
    • A Presiding Officers’ Conference held in Delhi in 1996 first mooted the idea of ethics panels for the two Houses.
    • Then Vice President (and Rajya Sabha Chairman) K R Narayanan constituted the Ethics Committee of the Upper House in 1997.
    • In the case of Lok Sabha, a study group of the House Committee of Privileges recommended (in 1997) the constitution of an Ethics Committee, but it could not be taken up by Lok Sabha.
      • The Committee of Privileges finally recommended the constitution of an Ethics Committee during the 13th Lok Sabha.
      • The late Speaker, G M C Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000, which became a permanent part of the House only in 2015.
  • Appointment of members in Lok Sabha: The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the Speaker for a period of one year.
    • The 15-member Committee’s function is to examine every complaint relating to unethical conduct of a Member of Lok Sabha referred to it by the Speaker and make such recommendations as it may deem fit.
  • Procedure for complaints:
    • Any person can complain against a Member through another Lok Sabha MP, along with evidence of the alleged misconduct, and an affidavit stating that the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”.
    • If the Member himself complains, the affidavit is not needed.
    • The Speaker can refer to the Committee any complaint against an MP.
    • The Committee does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or on matters that are sub-judice.
    • The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint. It makes its recommendations after evaluating the complaint.
    • The Committee presents its report to the Speaker, who asks the House if the report should be taken up for consideration. There is also a provision for a half-hour discussion on the report.
  • Overlap with Privileges Committee:
    • The work of the Ethics Committee and the Privileges Committee often overlap. An allegation of corruption against an MP can be sent to either body, but usually more serious accusations go to the Privileges Committee.
    • The mandate of the Privileges Committee is to safeguard the “freedom, authority, and dignity of Parliament”.
    • These privileges are enjoyed by individual Members as well as the House as a whole. An MP can be examined for Breach of Privilege; a non-MP too can be accused of breach of privilege for actions that attack the authority and dignity of the House.
    • The Ethics Committee can take up only cases of misconduct that involve MPs.

Q. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) T.T. Krishnamachari

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Notes:
  • The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan. The meeting was, thus, attended by only 211 members.
  • Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary/provisional President of the Assembly, following the French practice.
    • Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly, and Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a Christian from Bengal and former vice-chancellor of Calcutta University, was vice-president.
  • The Assembly approved the draft constitution on 26 November 1949. On 26 January 1950, the constitution took effect (commemorated as Republic Day), and the Constituent Assembly became the Provisional Parliament of India (continuing until after the first elections under the new constitution in 1952).
Important Committees of Constituent Assembly and Their Chairmen
Name of CommitteeChairman
Committee on the Rules of ProcedureRajendra Prasad
Steering CommitteeRajendra Prasad
Finance and Staff CommitteeRajendra Prasad
Credential CommitteeAlladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
House CommitteeB. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Ad hoc Committee on the National FlagRajendra Prasad
Committee on the Functions of the Constituent AssemblyG.V. Mavalankar
Order of Business CommitteeK.M. Munsi
Timeline of Formation of the Constitution of India
  • 9 December 1946: Formation of the Constituent Assembly (demanding a separate state, the Muslim League boycotted the meeting)
  • 11 December 1946: President Appointed – ⁣Rajendra Prasad, vice-chairman Harendra Coomar Mookerjee and constitutional legal adviser B. N. Rau (initially 389 members in total, which declined to 299 after partition. Out of 389, 292 were from government provinces, 4 from chief commissioner provinces and 93 from princely states)
  • 13 December 1946: An ‘Objective Resolution’ was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru, laying down the underlying principles of the constitution, which later became the Preamble of the constitution.
  • 22 January 1947: Objective resolution unanimously adopted.
  • 22 July 1947: National flag adopted.
  • 15 August 1947: Achieved independence. India split into Dominion of India and Dominion of Pakistan.
  • 29 August 1947: Drafting Committee appointed, with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the chairman. Other 6 members of the committee were: K.M.Munshi, Muhammed Saadulah, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, Gopala Swami Ayyangar, N. Madhava Rao (He replaced B.L. Mitter who resigned due to ill health), T. T. Krishnamachari (He replaced D.P. Khaitan who died in 1948).
  • 16 July 1948: Along with Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, V. T. Krishnamachari was also elected as the second vice-president of the Constituent Assembly.
  • 26 November 1949: ‘Constitution of India’ passed and adopted by the assembly.
  • 24 January 1950: Last meeting of the Constituent Assembly. ‘The Constitution of India’ (with 395 articles, 8 schedules, 22 parts) was signed and accepted by all.
  • 26 January 1950: The ‘Constitution of India’ came into force after 2 years, 11 months, and 18 Days, at a total expenditure of ₹6.4 million to finish.
  • Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar was the first speaker when meeting the assembly of Lok Sabha, after turning republic.

Q. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

  1. Addition
  2. Variation
  3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1 2 and 3

Notes:
  • Article 368 (1) states that, ‘Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.’

Q. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

  1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
  2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
  3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
  4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Money Bill
  • Article 109 provides for the Special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
  • The provisions mentioned in Article 109 are as follows:
    • A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
    • After the House of the People has passed a Money Bill it shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations and the Council of States shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
    • The House of the People may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States.
      • If the House of the People accepts any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses with the amendments recommended by the Council of States and accepted by the House of the People.
      • If the House of the People does not accept any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People without any of the amendments recommended by the Council of States.
      • If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations is not returned to the House of the People within the said period of fourteen days, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People.

Q. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

  1. Governor of the Constituent State
  2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
  3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
  4. The Home Minister of India 

Select the Correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

North Eastern Council (NEC)
  • North Eastern Council (NEC) is a statutory advisory body constituted under the North Eastern Council Act 1971 and came into being on 8 August 1972 at Shillong.
  • The eight States of Northeast India viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, are members of the council, with their respective Chief Ministers and Governors representing them.
    • Sikkim was added to the council in the year 2002.
  • The headquarters of the council is situated in Shillong and functions under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DONER).
  • The Council comprises Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members nominated by the President.
  • The President will nominate the Chairman of the Council and he need not be nominated from amongst the other Members.
  • The North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002 enjoined the NEC to act as a ‘regional planning body’.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

  1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
  2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
  3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Notes:
  • The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, also known as ‘Nari Shakti Adhiniyam’ reserves one-third of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, including those reserved for SCs and STs.
  • Key Provisions:
    • Within the 33% reservation for women, there will be sub-reservations for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in line with their proportion in the population.
    • The reservation will be in effect for a period of 15 years from the date of commencement of the legislation. The duration can be extended by Parliament if deemed necessary.
    • The bill does not propose any reservation for women in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of India’s Parliament) or the state legislative councils.
    • The reservation will come into effect after the completion of the first delimitation exercise undertaken after the commencement of the bill, ensuring that constituencies are redrawn to reflect the population changes.

Q. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

Prohibition:
  • A writ of prohibition is issued by a Court to prohibit the lower courts, tribunals and other quasi-judicial authorities from doing something beyond their authority.
  • It is issued to direct inactivity and thus differs from mandamus which directs activity.
  • The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasijudicial authorities.
  • It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.

Q. Consider the following statements:

  1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
  2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Notes:
  • Article 342(1) states that the President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory as the case may be.
  • Clause (2) of the Article 342 empowers the Parliament to pass a law to include in or exclude from the List of Scheduled Tribes, any tribe or tribal community or parts of these. The List of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a state need not be so in another state/UT.

Q. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

  1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament.
  2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Notes:
  • Article 112 of the Indian Constitution says that every year “the President of India shall cause to be laid before both the houses of the parliament” the “Annual Financial Statement”. The Union Finance Minister presents the budget on behalf of the President and not the Prime Minister.
  • Article 113 (3) prescribes that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the President of India’s prior approval.

Q. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

  1. He/She shall not preside
  2. He/She shall not have the right to speak
  3. He She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Notes:
  • When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present.
  • However, he can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes.

Q. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution
  2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
  3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Lapsing of Bills in Parliament:
  • It is only Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies that are subject to dissolution, there is no provision of dissolution for Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Council.
  • When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions pending before it or its committee’s lapses.
  • Articles 107 and 108 of the Indian Constitution deal with these provisions.
When does a Bill lapse?
  • A Bill that originates in the Lok Sabha and remains pending in the Lower House itself is considered lapsed with the dissolution of the House.
  • A Bill that originates and is passed by the Rajya Sabha, but is pending in the Lok Sabha also lapses with the dissolution of the Lower House.
  • Bills that originate and are passed in the Lok Sabha but are pending in the Rajya Sabha are also considered lapsed.
  • Bill that originates and is passed in the Rajya Sabha but is returned with amendments to the Upper House by the Lok Sabha and then does not get the clearance of the Rajya Sabha is considered to have lapsed on the date of dissolution of the Lower House.
When does a Bill not lapse?

There are instances when certain Bills, despite the dissolution of the Lower House, are not considered to have lapsed.

  • A Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha but is not passed by the Lok Sabha.
  • Bills that have cleared both the Houses but are pending assent from the President.
  • If the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
  • A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Rajya Sabha.
  • Pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances.

Q. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
  2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
  3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Notes:
  • Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President may from time to time prorogue Houses or either House of Parliament. Such prorogation requires the advice of the council of ministers.
  • Termination of a session of the House by an Order by the President under the above constitutional provision is called ‘prorogation’. Prorogation normally follows the adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die. But the president can prorogue when the house is in session too.
  • Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The President may on his discretion, look for alternate government formation if the present government cannot prove a majority.