UPSC Prelims Research: International Relations 2024

Q. Operations undertaken by the Army towards the upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operation Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(c) Operation Sadbhavana

(d) Operation Madad

Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana

Operation Sadbhavana:

• Operation Sadbhavana, also known as Operation Goodwill, is a Military Civic Action program initiated by the Indian Army in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
• It aims to address the aspirations of people affected by terrorism and win their hearts and minds. The operation focuses on various developmental and welfare activities to improve living conditions and promote national integration.
• It is aimed at “Winning the Hearts and Minds” (WHAM) of the people in the region.
• Sadbhavna operation can also be interpreted as Operation Harmony.
• The catchphrase of the operation is “Jawan aur Awam, Aman Hai Muqaam“.
• The Indian Army is organising multiple welfare activities, such as running schools and infrastructure development projects, as part of “Operation Sadbhavana” in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
• The activities are aimed at helping children living in remote areas of Ladakh.
• To improve the standard of education and to provide them with quality education, the army is currently running seven Army Goodwill Schools [AGS].

Operation Sankalp:

• Purpose: Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy in June 2019 in response to rising tensions in the Gulf of Oman and Persian Gulf region.
• Objectives:
  • Ensure safe passage of Indian-flagged vessels through the Strait of Hormuz.
  • Provide naval escorts to Indian merchant vessels transiting through the Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman.

Operation Maitri:

• Purpose: Operation Maitri was launched by the Indian Armed Forces in August 2014 in response to the devastating floods in Nepal.
• Objectives:
  • Provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR) to the affected population in Nepal.
  • Support the Nepalese government in rescue and relief operations, medical aid, and rehabilitation efforts.

Operation Madad:

• Purpose: Operation Madad was launched by the Indian Armed Forces during natural calamities and disasters in India.
• Objectives:
  • Provide immediate relief and rescue operations during disasters such as floods, cyclones, earthquakes, and other emergencies.
  • Coordinate multi-agency efforts to evacuate stranded individuals, distribute essential supplies, and restore normalcy in affected regions.

Q. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4

Exercise MITRA SHAKTI

• Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023 is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka.
  • The ninth edition of Joint Military exercise “Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023” commenced in Aundh (Pune).
  • 15 personnel from Indian Air Force and five personnel from Sri Lankan Air Force participated in the exercise.
• MITRA SHAKTI is an annual exercise based on counter insurgency and counter terrorism operations in semi urban terrain.
  • It is the largest bilateral exercise being undertaken by the Sri Lankan Army and it forms a major part of India and Sri Lanka’s growing defence partnership.
  • It is designed for incorporating the current dynamics of UN’ peacekeeping operations through tactical exercises and practical discussions.
• India’s other exercise with Sri Lanka – SLINEX (Navy)

Sri Lanka

• Sri Lanka is an island country in South Asia located in the Indian Ocean, southwest of the Bay of Bengal and southeast of the Arabian Sea.
• It is separated from the Indian subcontinent by the Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Strait, and shares a maritime border with India and the Maldives.
• India is Sri Lanka’s 3rd-largest export destination (after US and UK) with over 60% of Sri Lankan exports benefiting from the India-Sri Lanka FTA.
• Both India and Sri Lanka are part of regional groups like BIMSTEC and SAARC.

Q. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(c) Shashi Tharoor

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Notes:

• The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World and Why Bharat Matters is a book by Indian politician and author S. Jaishankar who serves as the Minister of External Affairs of the Government of India.
• The book delves into the geopolitical significance of India, also known as Bharat.
• It discusses India’s strategic importance in the global arena.

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I explains Statement-II

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Notes:

• The Net-Zero Industry Act (NZIA) is a piece of EU legislation aimed at accelerating the transition to a net-zero economy by strengthening the EU’s manufacturing capacity for net-zero technologies.
• European Parliament approved the Net-Zero industry Act to bolster EU production in technologies needed for decarbonisation.
• The “Net-Zero industry Act”, already informally agreed upon with the Council, sets a target for Europe to produce 40% of its annual deployment needs in net-zero technologies by 2030, based on National Energy and Climate Plans (NECPs) and to capture 15% of the global market value for these technologies.
• Technologies to be supported include all renewable technologies, nuclear, industrial decarbonisation, grid, energy storage technologies, and biotech.
• The law will simplify the permitting process, setting maximum timelines for projects to be authorised depending on their scope and output.
• The agreement provides for the creation of “Net-Zero Acceleration Valleys” initiatives, speeding up the permitting process by delegating parts of the evidence collection for environmental assessments to member states.
• The NZIA is a key component of the EU’s strategy to achieve climate neutrality by 2050, as outlined in the European Green Deal.

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Notes:

• Venezuela has been experiencing a significant economic crisis characterized by hyperinflation, shortages of basic goods, and political turmoil.
• These conditions have led to a large-scale humanitarian crisis and mass emigration.
• Venezuela has not demonstrated a rapid recovery from its economic crisis, and its emigration issues remain acute.
• Venezuela is recognized as having the world’s largest proven oil reserves, surpassing those of other countries, including Saudi Arabia.
• This is a significant aspect of its national identity and economy, although the benefits of these reserves have been hampered by political and economic challenges.

Venezuela:

• It is located on the northern coast of South America.
• It covers a total area of 916,445 sq.km (353,841 sq mi).
• Boundaries: It is bounded by the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean to the north, Guyana to the east, Brazil to the south, and Colombia to the southwest and west. 
• Capital: Caracas
• A physiographically diverse country, Venezuela incorporates the northern Andean Mountain chains and interior highlands, the main portions of the Orinoco River basin with itsexpansive Llanos (plains), Lake Maracaibo, which is the largest lake in South America, and the spectacular Angel Falls, the world’s highest waterfall.
• Major Rivers:
  • Rio Negro (shared with Colombia and Brazil): 2,250 km. It is a major tributary of the Amazon River.
  • Orinoco (shared with Colombia): 2,101 km. It is the third-longest river in South America, after the Parana and the Amazon.
• Venezuela administers a number of Caribbean islands and archipelagos, among which are Margarita Island, La Blanquilla, La Tortuga, Los Roques, and Los Monjes. 
• Since the early 19th century, Venezuela has claimed jurisdiction over Guyanese territorywest of the Essequibo River, totaling some 53,000 square miles (137,000 square km)—nearly two-thirds of the land area of Guyana.
• Resources: Venezuela is home to the world’s largest oil reserves as well as huge quantities of coal, iron ore, bauxite, and gold.
• Languages: Spanish (official) 98.2%, indigenous 1.3%, Portuguese 0.1%, other 0.4% (2023 est.)
• Currency: Venezuelan bolívar

Q. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Digital India Land Record Modernisation Programme

• The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) is a government initiative to modernize land records in India. 
• It aims to digitize and centralize land records, ultimately leading to a more transparent and efficient land management system.
• The DILRMP was approved by the Cabinet on 21^st August, 2008.
• The objective of DILRMP is to develop a modern, comprehensive and transparent land record management system with the aim to develop an Integrated Land Information Management System which will inter alia:
  • (i) improve real-time information on land;
  • (ii) optimize use of land resources;
  • (iii) benefit both landowners & prospectors;
  • (iv) assist in policy & planning;
  • (v) reduce land disputes;
  • (vi) check fraudulent/benami transactions
  • (vii) obviate need of physical visits to Revenue/Registration offices
  • (viii) enable sharing of information with various organisations/agencies.
• It is a Central Sector scheme that has been extended to 2025-26, to complete its original targets as well as expand its ambit with a slew of new schemes.
• It is being implemented by the Department of Land Resources (Ministry of Rural Development).
• Some innovative initiatives under DILRMP:
  • Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) or Bhu-Aadhar
  • National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS) or E-Registration
  • Linkage of e-Court with Land Records / Registration Data base
  • Transliteration of Land Records in all languages of Schedule VIII in all States/UTs
  • BHOOMI SAMMAN (Platinum Grading Certificate Scheme for DILRMP for States/UTs)
• Benefits:
  • Real-time land ownership records will be available to the citizen.
  • Free accessibility to the records will reduce interface between the citizen and the Government functionaries, thereby reducing rent seeking and harassment.
    • Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode of service delivery will further reduce citizen interface with Govt. machinery, while adding to the convenience.
  • The single-window service or the web-enabled “anytime-anywhere” access will save the citizen time and effort in obtaining RoRs (Record of Rights), etc.
  • Automatic and automated mutations will significantly reduce the scope of fraudulent property deals.
  • Conclusive titling will also significantly reduce litigation.
  • Certificates based on land data (e.g., domicile, caste, income, etc.) will be available to the citizen through computers.
  • This method will permit e-linkages to credit facilities.
  • Information on eligibility for Government programs will be available, based on the data.

Q. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan

• The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan has been launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India.
• The program aims to provide assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care, free of cost, universally to all pregnant women on the 9th of every month.
• It guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their 2nd / 3rd trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities.
• The programme follows a systematic approach for engagement with private sector which includes motivating private practitioners to volunteer for the campaign developing strategies for generating awareness and appealing to the private sector to participate in the Abhiyan at government health facilities.
• It envisages to improve the quality and coverage of Antenatal Care (ANC) including diagnostics and counselling services as part of the Reproductive Maternal Neonatal Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) Strategy.

Objectives of the program:

• Ensure at least one antenatal checkup for all pregnant women in their second or third trimester by a physician/specialist
• Improve the quality of care during ante-natal visits. This includes ensuring provision of the following services:
  • All applicable diagnostic services
  • Screening for the applicable clinical conditions
  • Appropriate management of any existing clinical condition such as Anaemia, Pregnancy induced hypertension, Gestational Diabetes etc.
  • Appropriate counselling services and proper documentation of services rendered
  • Additional service opportunity to pregnant women who have missed ante-natal visits
• Identification and line-listing of high risk pregnancies based on obstetric/ medical history and existing clinical conditions.
• Appropriate birth planning and complication readiness for each pregnant woman especially those identified with any risk factor or comorbid condition.
• Special emphasis on early diagnosis, adequate and appropriate management of women with malnutrition.
• Special focus on adolescent and early pregnancies as these pregnancies need extra and specialized care.
• One of the critical components of the Abhiyan is identification and follow up of high risk pregnancies.
• A sticker indicating the condition and risk factor of the pregnant women would be added onto MCP card for each visit:
  • Green Sticker– for women with no risk factor detected
  • Red Sticker – for women with high risk pregnancy

Q. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana

• It is a Central Sector Pension Scheme launched in 2019, administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, and Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) acts as the Pension Fund Manager. 
• Target Beneficiaries: The scheme targets unorganised workers aged 18 to 40, such as street vendors, domestic workers, construction labourers, and agricultural workers, with a monthly income up to Rs 15,000. 
• Contribution: Workers are required to make monthly contributions (premium) ranging from Rs 55 to Rs 200, depending on their entry age, with the government matching their contribution. 
  • An unorganized sector worker joining pension yojana at the age of 29 years will have to contribute only Rs 100 per month till the age of 60 years.
  • A worker joining the pension yojana at 18 years, will have to contribute as little as Rs 55 per month only.
  • The Government will deposit equal matching share in the pension account of the worker every month.
• Pension Benefits: The scheme promises a pension of Rs 3,000 per month after the worker turns 60. However, if the worker dies before 60, there is no lump sum payment to their family.
  • In case of the subscriber’s demise, their spouse will receive 50% of the pension amount as family pension.  
• PM-SYM is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme that will engage as many as 42 crore workers in the unorganized sector.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization :

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 2 only

World Toilet Organization (WTO)

• The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit organization whose goal is to improve toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide.
• It was founded in 2001 with 15 members and has now grown to 151 member organizations in 53 countries.
  • The World Toilet Organisation was founded by Jack Sim in Singapore on 19 November 2001.
• It aims to break the taboo around toilets and sanitation, advocating for safe and hygienic facilities, and promoting best practices.
• The WTO is also the organizer of the World Toilet Summit, the Urgent Run and initiated the United Nations World Toilet Day.
• The WTO’s headquarters are in Singapore.
• Key Objectives:
  • Advocacy: Raise awareness about the global sanitation crisis and promote better sanitation facilities.
  • Education: Provide training on sanitation and hygiene practices.
  • Innovation: Support the development of innovative sanitation solutions.
  • Collaboration: Partner with governments, NGOs, academia, and the private sector to address sanitation challenges.
• Key Initiatives:
  • World Toilet Day: Celebrated annually on November 19 to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
  • SaniShop: Trains local entrepreneurs to produce and sell affordable sanitation products.
  • School Toilet Projects: Improves sanitation facilities in schools for a healthier learning environment.
  • Advocacy Campaigns: Highlights the importance of sanitation and influences policy changes.
• Impact:
  • Global Reach: Influenced sanitation policies and practices in many countries, improving access to toilets for millions.
  • Recognition: Gained international acclaim for addressing sanitation issues innovatively.
• Challenges Addressed:
  • Open Defecation: Aims to end this practice by providing access to safe toilets.
  • Sanitation Inequality: Works to reduce disparities in sanitation access.
  • Health and Hygiene: Emphasizes sanitation’s role in preventing diseases and promoting public health.

Q. Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”? 

(a)  It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water Systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience. 

(b)  It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and Strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry. 

(c)  It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely. 

(d)  It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products. 

Answer: (a)  It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water Systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience. 

Notes:

• “100 Million Farmers” is a World Economic Forum initiative aimed at accelerating the transition towards more sustainable and resilient food and water systems by supporting and empowering small-scale farmers globally, with a goal of reaching 100 million farmers by 2030.
• 100 Million Farmers has bold objectives for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero, nature-positive, and that increase farmer resilience.
• Vision includes:
  • Unlocking financing and fostering collaboration to accelerate the transition to regenerative and climate-smart agriculture, aiming to reach a critical tipping point by 2030.
  • Delivering enhanced outcomes in key areas such as soil health, climate resilience, water conservation, biodiversity, and improved livelihoods for farmers.

Q. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

	Army	Airforce	Navy
1.	Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
2.	Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
3.	Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant commander
4.	Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Equivalent Ranks in the Indian Armed Forces:

General Officer Ranks:

• Lieutenant General (Army) = Vice Admiral (Navy) = Air Marshal (Air Force)
• Major General (Army) = Rear Admiral (Navy) = Air Vice Marshal (Air Force)
• Brigadier (Army) = Air Commodore (Air Force) = Commodore (Navy) 

Senior Officer Ranks:

• Colonel (Army) = Captain (Navy) = Group Captain (Air Force)
• Lieutenant Colonel (Army) = Commander (Navy) = Wing Commander (Air Force) 

Junior Officer Ranks:

• Major (Army) = Lieutenant Commander (Navy) = Squadron Leader (Air Force) 
• Captain (Army) = Lieutenant (Navy) = Flight Lieutenant (Air Force) 

Indian Army	Indian Navy	Indian Air Force
*Field Marshal	*Admiral of the fleet	*Marshal of the Air Force
General	Admiral	Air Chief Marshal
Lt. General	Vice Admiral	Air Marshal
Major General	Rear Admiral	Air Vice Marshal
Brigadier	Commodore	Air Commodore
Colonel	Captain	Group Captain
Lt. Colonel	Commander	Wing Commander
Major	Lt. Commander	Squadron Leader
Captain	Lieutenant	Flight Lieutenant
Lieutenant	Sub Lieutenant	Flying Officer

• Admiral of the fleet, has never been awarded yet.
• Field marshal, awarded to Kodandera Madappa Cariappa and Sam Manekshaw.
• Marshal of the Indian Air Force, awarded to Arjan Singh.
• Indian military officers of five-star rank hold their rank for life, and are considered to be serving officers until their deaths.